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Hi all,
During the show with Fr Pacwa on 22nd March, a caller (I think his name was Denis, if I remember correctly) stated that he was a former Catholic and now did not believe in the Real Presence, specifically citing John's Gospel. He said that while John doesn't use the word "symbolic" with regards the Eucharist (in the "Bread of Life" discourse) neither does he use the word "literal". Denis then pointed out that throughout this Gospel, Jesus uses figurative language to mean something else, for example, "temple" to mean his body in John 2, being born "again" to mean - he didn't say, so I'll fill it in here - faith, baptism and life through the Spirit, "living water" to mean the Spirit, and so on, concluding that when Jesus said "my flesh" he similarly meant this figuratively to mean something else. Now, while Fr Pacwa gave a good response, I don't think he really tackled this question, which is one I've heard Protestants bring up before. I actually think it's a good objection, as far as it goes. However, it does suffer from not reading the text closely enough. If this was all that was going on in John's Gospel, it would be difficult not to concede the issue to some degree, but a closer reading shows that actually a person using this argument has missed precisely John's meaning. There is much figurative speech in the Gospel (rather, Johanine riddling, which Jesus does a fair bit in this Gospel), but there is also a pattern that goes with it, namely: figurative-mistaken understanding-corrective. Why? Because John is trying to emphasise that faith and true belief in Christ must go beyond the earthly appearance to the spiritual truth. As Jesus says, "If I have told you earthly things and you do not believe, how can you believe if I tell you heavenly things?" (John 3:12 RSV) So, here are some examples (all quotes from RSV): John 2:19:
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John 2:20:
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John 2:21:
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John 3:3:
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John 3:4:
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John 3:5:
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John 4:10:
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John 4:11:
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John 7:37-39:
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John 11:11:
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John 11:12:
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John 11:14:
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Now, the interesting thing is when we get to John 6, we don't see anything like this at all! For example, John 6:51:
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John 6:52:
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Where we would expect to find a corrective in this pattern, instead we find: John 6:53:
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Nowhere in the chapter or anywhere else in the Gospel, does Jesus use the term "bread from heaven" or similar ones employed here and make it clear that he means something else, e.g. Scripture or faith. Rather, he continues to emphasise the reality of his body and blood. In fact, he even forces the point (which is remarkable, because it's not something Jesus usually does): "Do you take offense at this?" (John 6:61) and "Do you also wish to go away?" (John 6:67) as if goading his audience and disciples to reject him. This is very unusual behaviour for Jesus, who throughout the Gospel tries to make clear his more figurative or symbolic speech. I'd invite Denis (if that indeed was his name!) to re-think his objection, and also invite comments Jonathan |
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Very nice.
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I recall listening to a speach not long ago. A catholic professor speaking of his Muslim student who was questioning our faith. There was dialogue in the classroom over the prayers and piety of Muslims and whether that meant they were more spiritual or closer to God. The Eucharist came up and the student actually agreed to attend a mass along with the professor. When the professor asked the student what he thought about the Eucharist, the student was hesitant to reply. The student had the absolute most valid response I had ever heard to express why he doubted the real presence in the Eucharist. He said, "I don't think you really believe that is the real presence, I don't think anyone really believes that." He professor asked why he felt that way. The student replied, "because, if you did, you would never get up off your knees."
I'll try to find the recording and share...
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True, that's quite an enlightened response!
Still, we believe in God - and yet we sin, as if God did no exist. There's something funny about humans. Beliefs are never enough, there needs to be emotional attachment, and much more too. |
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This is the link...
http://www.philvaz.com/RobertSpencer...eeftDebate.mp3 It is the most interesting debate I have come across in a long time. I encourage anyone interested to take the time to listen to the entire debate. If your only interested in the question at hand, you will find the reference at around 57:00 on the time line.
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Wow, Robert Spencer and Peter Kreeft debate?
Somehow I'm not surprised. |
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Matthew 9:24 comes to mind when pondering the Real Presence.
"I believe, help my unbelief" I actually have another great link for anyone interested in better explaining this issue to others. Scott Hahn...takes us all through the OT to the New and looks at just about every angle you could think of regarding this issue. http://youtu.be/OfGw8G9P4_Y Enjoy!
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Thanks, mate.
I can't access the debate as I'm in China at the moment (no YouTube and most Christian sites). What is it like? |
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Great Post!
I've also used that thought before where Jesus did speak in parables, but when his disciples and Apostles didn't understand, He would explain what he meant, but when it came to his body and blood, He let them go and didn't say, "wait, I meant symbolically. and it is 'like my body and like my blood'"
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To one who has faith, no explanation is necessary. To one without faith, no explanation is possible." Thomas Aquinas |
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All I can say is...wow. |
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Do people still believe in metaphors?
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Well, basically he explains the Passover, the atonement for sins, sacrificing an unblinished lamb ect ect. He explains exactly how these rituals were done and exactly why and what it meant. The most interesting to me was explaining the cups they drank for Passover and why The Lord, during the last supper, did not drink the last cup as was the ritual, then as He prayed in the garden, He asked God to take this cup from Him. And, he refused to drink until on the cross, when He said "I thirst" and the soldier lifted up the sponge and He drank. This is when he finally said, "It is finished". What was finished? The Passover. See, in the OT, not only was the unblinished lamb to be sacrificed and the blood to be covered over the door posts but, it was not finished until they ate the lamb. It was very specific, they had to eat the lamb or they would not have been protected from the angel of death. The significance of the "Cups", I'm not too much familiar with, I would have to do much more research. It's not something I have considered before.
Now, I think the best argument is the fact that so many turned away when Jesus said, "You must eat my flesh and drink my blood".... The Jews knew exactly what this meant because they knew the OT references of the Passover sacrifice and it was deffinately taken literally or they would not have turned away. And, you are correct, Jesus did not attempt to correct them as if they had misunderstood, because they did not misunderstand. To explain this to others, you must be able to bring to light the OT rituals of the Passover.
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